by The Manhattan Project » Fri May 18, 2007 12:27 am
Ask him why Everton fans seem to think that getting into Europe in 1986 and 1988 would have equated automatically with them winning it, and by the same logic would that mean that if English clubs were allowed into the European Cup during that era, would Liverpool have automatically won the 1987, 1989 and 1991 European Cups?
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